Need an answer, very confused

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Hello, Whilst doing a little research ive hit rock, can no longer think.

According to history, pre-islamic Arabia had the same lack of womens rights as they do now with shitty islam. I was wondering how was this possible, as they were guided by our true Gods? is it the lack of understanding from the Arabs in general? Or a corruption in their islamisised history books?

Thank you,

Hail Satan