PhantomWarrior
New member
- Joined
- Aug 30, 2023
- Messages
- 22
I know this is a very unanswerable question given the state of linguistics as it exist yet I have had this question on my mind for years and I have within my utmost hopes to garner any insight or thoughts that some of you here may have acquired as it goes without saying that there is no other better place than here to ask.
Singularly for me as of late, the point of greatest interest and confusion is etymology's perspective on this purported idea that Egyptian language belongs only to the AFA (Afro-Asiatic Language family) whilst that of Ancient Greek belongs singularly to the PIE (Proto/prehistoric Indo-European Language family, even though they have from my view had innumerable parallels and similarities.
They also had created an artificial language called PIE (Proto-Indo European), of the same name in regards to the collective language family, that which is this fabricated supposed language claimed as the progenitor of all languages within its extending language family (PIE). This has since my coming to learn it felt as if it was a fabrication used to best answer a question that has no proper answer. Such is a disparagable lie to countless many souls in our world today in my view and it has for some reasone caused me great anxiety as lexicographers, OED, Merriam Webster and so on appear to me as nothing short of criminal institutions that only remove and depreciate the preservation of past language, even that to less than 100 years (...obsolete, can't use it in University papers...)
It bothers me to think too deeply on this yet such also presents me comfort somehow as I feel more deeply toward such things than the majority of our collective existence. To this degree, I'm beside myself in hoping to understand this topic clearly beyond that of AI and University-based answers that more often than not feel to my heart like a criminal lie against our collective existence, history and truth.
I suppose I should get to the main point of my confustion as this has been bothering me for sometime and I do not know how or where to ask or seek for counsel. Regarding Ancient Egyptian, it is said by AI that Phonecian (from Egyptian) created the earliest forms within the fully developed Ancient Greek alphabeet. That said however, the earliest known version of the Ancient Greek alphabet is recognized as orignating from Liner B, of which is said to originate from Ancient Mycenian Greek around 1450 BC/BCE. This is exactly where AI contradicts itself. It sates that most of the earliest Ancient Greek alphablet is derived from Phonecian, yet it states that Linear B has nothing to do with Phonecian even though such is the earliest recognized and attested Greek alphabet.
I have felt for too long disatisfied with this anwer regarding our earliest langues and I feel in my soul that they are more closely interlinked and a part of one another than what is surmised by the establishments/Universities.
Can anyone tell me, if you are well aware, what language came before the above? Is there one or several?
Reflecting on HPS Maxine's early teachings I remember reading that we had lanuage without words - that things superceded the material and were more related to the metaphysical (papaphrasing)...
I would be most satisfied even with this anwer yet I cannot come to any such conclusions on my own. Any and all suggestions, reassurances, critcisms and reflectrions are beyond welcome here. This is more-or-less a *poop-emoji* post for you all here and I do apologize for such a disparaging question. It is not hard for me however as everwhere I look I tend to only see lies and contradictions. Such is the path of an SS I suspect... We have much to rectify and clarify in the world on this path, regardless of what interest one is inspired toward most.
Thank you for your time and if you rad all of this you are a genuinly kind hearted homosapien (wise-human). Thank you for your time, each and all of you!!
Singularly for me as of late, the point of greatest interest and confusion is etymology's perspective on this purported idea that Egyptian language belongs only to the AFA (Afro-Asiatic Language family) whilst that of Ancient Greek belongs singularly to the PIE (Proto/prehistoric Indo-European Language family, even though they have from my view had innumerable parallels and similarities.
They also had created an artificial language called PIE (Proto-Indo European), of the same name in regards to the collective language family, that which is this fabricated supposed language claimed as the progenitor of all languages within its extending language family (PIE). This has since my coming to learn it felt as if it was a fabrication used to best answer a question that has no proper answer. Such is a disparagable lie to countless many souls in our world today in my view and it has for some reasone caused me great anxiety as lexicographers, OED, Merriam Webster and so on appear to me as nothing short of criminal institutions that only remove and depreciate the preservation of past language, even that to less than 100 years (...obsolete, can't use it in University papers...)
It bothers me to think too deeply on this yet such also presents me comfort somehow as I feel more deeply toward such things than the majority of our collective existence. To this degree, I'm beside myself in hoping to understand this topic clearly beyond that of AI and University-based answers that more often than not feel to my heart like a criminal lie against our collective existence, history and truth.
I suppose I should get to the main point of my confustion as this has been bothering me for sometime and I do not know how or where to ask or seek for counsel. Regarding Ancient Egyptian, it is said by AI that Phonecian (from Egyptian) created the earliest forms within the fully developed Ancient Greek alphabeet. That said however, the earliest known version of the Ancient Greek alphabet is recognized as orignating from Liner B, of which is said to originate from Ancient Mycenian Greek around 1450 BC/BCE. This is exactly where AI contradicts itself. It sates that most of the earliest Ancient Greek alphablet is derived from Phonecian, yet it states that Linear B has nothing to do with Phonecian even though such is the earliest recognized and attested Greek alphabet.
I have felt for too long disatisfied with this anwer regarding our earliest langues and I feel in my soul that they are more closely interlinked and a part of one another than what is surmised by the establishments/Universities.
Can anyone tell me, if you are well aware, what language came before the above? Is there one or several?
Reflecting on HPS Maxine's early teachings I remember reading that we had lanuage without words - that things superceded the material and were more related to the metaphysical (papaphrasing)...
I would be most satisfied even with this anwer yet I cannot come to any such conclusions on my own. Any and all suggestions, reassurances, critcisms and reflectrions are beyond welcome here. This is more-or-less a *poop-emoji* post for you all here and I do apologize for such a disparaging question. It is not hard for me however as everwhere I look I tend to only see lies and contradictions. Such is the path of an SS I suspect... We have much to rectify and clarify in the world on this path, regardless of what interest one is inspired toward most.
Thank you for your time and if you rad all of this you are a genuinly kind hearted homosapien (wise-human). Thank you for your time, each and all of you!!
