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sheridan.nigel

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Hi!

I just read this article: http://www.exposingchristianity.com/Old ... ament.html,

and I'm a little confused about this part:

"1. LEST A JEW BE THE OCCAISION OF SIN TO THE IDOLATROUS CHRISTIANS, ACCORDING TO THE PRECEPT IN LEVI. XIX, 14: HE MUST AVOID ALL CONTACT WITH THEM ON THE DAYS WHEN THEY WORSHIP THEIR GODS."

What does the "LEVI. XIX, 14." mean? First I thought it's Leviticus 19:14, but that says something else:

"Thou shalt not curse the deaf, nor put a stumblingblock before the blind, but shalt fear thy God: I [am] the LORD."

Anyone have an idea?
 
This is of the Babylonian talmud. This is also very revealing with a bit more research - just how the jews use the code-word 'christian.' Also, note the 'Another suggestion is that by selling him something that will allow him to fulfill his worship, the Jew transgresses the prohibition of lifnei iver lo titen mikhshol - not to put a stumbling block before the blind.' at the near end of the last paragraph below.

Here is some more information, taken directly from a jewish website:
http://www.ou.org/shabbat_shalom/articl ... ntro_2a5b/

Avodah Zarah 2a-b - Jewish merchants and pagan holidays

'The Torah commands the Jewish people to remove themselves from interaction with pagan idol worship and from its adherents, so the reality of a Jewish population that lives in close proximity with non-Jews and interacts with them on a regular basis raises many questions. Given the centrality of idol worship to the daily life of a pagan, especially around certain holidays and places, the first perek (=chapter) of Masechet Avodah Zarah discusses the need for Jews to avoid business interactions with these non-Jews around the time of their holidays.

The first Mishnah forbids engaging in business interactions - e.g., borrowing and lending - with pagans for three days before their holidays. Although this would appear to forbid both buying and selling, Tosafot and other rishonim quote Rabbenu Tam as teaching that only selling would be forbidden, and even in the case of selling, only selling things that can be used in the course of worship cannot be sold.

The Gemara (6a) offers two reasons for this prohibition. One suggestion is that the non-Jew will be pleased with his purchase and will come to thank the pagan deity when the holiday comes about. Another suggestion is that by selling him something that will allow him to fulfill his worship, the Jew transgresses the prohibition of lifnei iver lo titen mikhshol - not to put a stumbling block before the blind. Since pagan idol worship is forbidden as one of the seven Noachide laws, it would be prohibited for a Jew to assist the non-Jew in performing this worship.

High Priestess Maxine Dietrich
http://www.joyofsatan.org


--- In [url=mailto:[email protected]][email protected][/url], "sheridan.nigel" <sheridan.nigel@... wrote:

Hi!

I just read this article: http://www.exposingchristianity.com/Old ... ament.html,

and I'm a little confused about this part:

"1. LEST A JEW BE THE OCCAISION OF SIN TO THE IDOLATROUS CHRISTIANS, ACCORDING TO THE PRECEPT IN LEVI. XIX, 14: HE MUST AVOID ALL CONTACT WITH THEM ON THE DAYS WHEN THEY WORSHIP THEIR GODS."

What does the "LEVI. XIX, 14." mean? First I thought it's Leviticus 19:14, but that says something else:

"Thou shalt not curse the deaf, nor put a stumblingblock before the blind, but shalt fear thy God: I [am] the LORD."

Anyone have an idea?
 
This is of the Babylonian talmud. This is also very revealing with a bit more research - just how the jews use the code-word 'christian.' Also, note the 'Another suggestion is that by selling him something that will allow him to fulfill his worship, the Jew transgresses the prohibition of lifnei iver lo titen mikhshol - not to put a stumbling block before the blind.' at the near end of the last paragraph below.

Here is some more information, taken directly from a jewish website:
http://www.ou.org/shabbat_shalom/articl ... ntro_2a5b/

Avodah Zarah 2a-b - Jewish merchants and pagan holidays

'The Torah commands the Jewish people to remove themselves from interaction with pagan idol worship and from its adherents, so the reality of a Jewish population that lives in close proximity with non-Jews and interacts with them on a regular basis raises many questions. Given the centrality of idol worship to the daily life of a pagan, especially around certain holidays and places, the first perek (=chapter) of Masechet Avodah Zarah discusses the need for Jews to avoid business interactions with these non-Jews around the time of their holidays.

The first Mishnah forbids engaging in business interactions - e.g., borrowing and lending - with pagans for three days before their holidays. Although this would appear to forbid both buying and selling, Tosafot and other rishonim quote Rabbenu Tam as teaching that only selling would be forbidden, and even in the case of selling, only selling things that can be used in the course of worship cannot be sold.

The Gemara (6a) offers two reasons for this prohibition. One suggestion is that the non-Jew will be pleased with his purchase and will come to thank the pagan deity when the holiday comes about. Another suggestion is that by selling him something that will allow him to fulfill his worship, the Jew transgresses the prohibition of lifnei iver lo titen mikhshol - not to put a stumbling block before the blind. Since pagan idol worship is forbidden as one of the seven Noachide laws, it would be prohibited for a Jew to assist the non-Jew in performing this worship.

High Priestess Maxine Dietrich
http://www.joyofsatan.org


--- In [url=mailto:[email protected]][email protected][/url], "sheridan.nigel" <sheridan.nigel@... wrote:

Hi!

I just read this article: http://www.exposingchristianity.com/Old ... ament.html,

and I'm a little confused about this part:

"1. LEST A JEW BE THE OCCAISION OF SIN TO THE IDOLATROUS CHRISTIANS, ACCORDING TO THE PRECEPT IN LEVI. XIX, 14: HE MUST AVOID ALL CONTACT WITH THEM ON THE DAYS WHEN THEY WORSHIP THEIR GODS."

What does the "LEVI. XIX, 14." mean? First I thought it's Leviticus 19:14, but that says something else:

"Thou shalt not curse the deaf, nor put a stumblingblock before the blind, but shalt fear thy God: I [am] the LORD."

Anyone have an idea?
 
Thank you for the answer! I understand now.

--- In [url=mailto:[email protected]][email protected][/url], High Priestess Maxine Dietrich <maxine.dietrich@... wrote:


This is of the Babylonian talmud. This is also very revealing with a bit more research - just how the jews use the code-word 'christian.' Also, note the 'Another suggestion is that by selling him something that will allow him to fulfill his worship, the Jew transgresses the prohibition of lifnei iver lo titen mikhshol - not to put a stumbling block before the blind.' at the near end of the last paragraph below.

Here is some more information, taken directly from a jewish website:
http://www.ou.org/shabbat_shalom/articl ... ntro_2a5b/

Avodah Zarah 2a-b - Jewish merchants and pagan holidays

'The Torah commands the Jewish people to remove themselves from interaction with pagan idol worship and from its adherents, so the reality of a Jewish population that lives in close proximity with non-Jews and interacts with them on a regular basis raises many questions. Given the centrality of idol worship to the daily life of a pagan, especially around certain holidays and places, the first perek (=chapter) of Masechet Avodah Zarah discusses the need for Jews to avoid business interactions with these non-Jews around the time of their holidays.

The first Mishnah forbids engaging in business interactions - e.g., borrowing and lending - with pagans for three days before their holidays. Although this would appear to forbid both buying and selling, Tosafot and other rishonim quote Rabbenu Tam as teaching that only selling would be forbidden, and even in the case of selling, only selling things that can be used in the course of worship cannot be sold.

The Gemara (6a) offers two reasons for this prohibition. One suggestion is that the non-Jew will be pleased with his purchase and will come to thank the pagan deity when the holiday comes about. Another suggestion is that by selling him something that will allow him to fulfill his worship, the Jew transgresses the prohibition of lifnei iver lo titen mikhshol - not to put a stumbling block before the blind. Since pagan idol worship is forbidden as one of the seven Noachide laws, it would be prohibited for a Jew to assist the non-Jew in performing this worship.

High Priestess Maxine Dietrich
http://www.joyofsatan.org


--- In [url=mailto:[email protected]][email protected][/url], "sheridan.nigel" <sheridan.nigel@ wrote:

Hi!

I just read this article: http://www.exposingchristianity.com/Old ... ament.html,

and I'm a little confused about this part:

"1. LEST A JEW BE THE OCCAISION OF SIN TO THE IDOLATROUS CHRISTIANS, ACCORDING TO THE PRECEPT IN LEVI. XIX, 14: HE MUST AVOID ALL CONTACT WITH THEM ON THE DAYS WHEN THEY WORSHIP THEIR GODS."

What does the "LEVI. XIX, 14." mean? First I thought it's Leviticus 19:14, but that says something else:

"Thou shalt not curse the deaf, nor put a stumblingblock before the blind, but shalt fear thy God: I [am] the LORD."

Anyone have an idea?
 
Plus, the talmud was created before the bible.....so how would they be reffering to the religion of "christianity" when it hadn't even been invented yet?

--- In [url=mailto:[email protected]][email protected][/url], High Priestess Maxine Dietrich <maxine.dietrich@... wrote:


This is of the Babylonian talmud. This is also very revealing with a bit more research - just how the jews use the code-word 'christian.' Also, note the 'Another suggestion is that by selling him something that will allow him to fulfill his worship, the Jew transgresses the prohibition of lifnei iver lo titen mikhshol - not to put a stumbling block before the blind.' at the near end of the last paragraph below.

Here is some more information, taken directly from a jewish website:
http://www.ou.org/shabbat_shalom/articl ... ntro_2a5b/

Avodah Zarah 2a-b - Jewish merchants and pagan holidays

'The Torah commands the Jewish people to remove themselves from interaction with pagan idol worship and from its adherents, so the reality of a Jewish population that lives in close proximity with non-Jews and interacts with them on a regular basis raises many questions. Given the centrality of idol worship to the daily life of a pagan, especially around certain holidays and places, the first perek (=chapter) of Masechet Avodah Zarah discusses the need for Jews to avoid business interactions with these non-Jews around the time of their holidays.

The first Mishnah forbids engaging in business interactions - e.g., borrowing and lending - with pagans for three days before their holidays. Although this would appear to forbid both buying and selling, Tosafot and other rishonim quote Rabbenu Tam as teaching that only selling would be forbidden, and even in the case of selling, only selling things that can be used in the course of worship cannot be sold.

The Gemara (6a) offers two reasons for this prohibition. One suggestion is that the non-Jew will be pleased with his purchase and will come to thank the pagan deity when the holiday comes about. Another suggestion is that by selling him something that will allow him to fulfill his worship, the Jew transgresses the prohibition of lifnei iver lo titen mikhshol - not to put a stumbling block before the blind. Since pagan idol worship is forbidden as one of the seven Noachide laws, it would be prohibited for a Jew to assist the non-Jew in performing this worship.

High Priestess Maxine Dietrich
http://www.joyofsatan.org


--- In [url=mailto:[email protected]][email protected][/url], "sheridan.nigel" <sheridan.nigel@ wrote:

Hi!

I just read this article: http://www.exposingchristianity.com/Old ... ament.html,

and I'm a little confused about this part:

"1. LEST A JEW BE THE OCCAISION OF SIN TO THE IDOLATROUS CHRISTIANS, ACCORDING TO THE PRECEPT IN LEVI. XIX, 14: HE MUST AVOID ALL CONTACT WITH THEM ON THE DAYS WHEN THEY WORSHIP THEIR GODS."

What does the "LEVI. XIX, 14." mean? First I thought it's Leviticus 19:14, but that says something else:

"Thou shalt not curse the deaf, nor put a stumblingblock before the blind, but shalt fear thy God: I [am] the LORD."

Anyone have an idea?
 

Al Jilwah: Chapter IV

"It is my desire that all my followers unite in a bond of unity, lest those who are without prevail against them." - Shaitan

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