Ask Zeus Operator
Why not use Roman or Greek or Phoenician alphabets instead of Germanic Runes? They are older and more original. Germanic Runes only have the shape they do to make writing (carving) them on wood easier. Why use Elder Futhark and not other versions by other Germanic tribes?
I know they work, and that's why we use them. But why can't I expect magical properties from just using the Latin alphabet? What makes Runes special?
You have asked this before and I've answered it:
https://ancient-forums.com/viewtopic.php?f=35&t=85026#p438064
Just because something is older doesn't mean that it's hieroglyphic and tailor-suited for magick like the Elder Futhark is, as it's been historically used in Norse Runic sorcery. There's evidence of Runes being used in magick since their earliest days. On the other hand, the other alphabets were never used in magick. Runes also they shape they do because they are highly symbolical like the Egyptian hieroglyphics, not just mere writing: each letter has it's own specific meaning.
Plus, how do you propose to vibrate a letter of the Latin alphabet, like the letter "A"? As I said, we don't use runes in divination, but we vibrate them like mantras. For example "I-N-G" or "I-N-G-W-A-Z" for the rune "Ing" for 22 times or a multiple of it.
See:
There are also stories in Norse mythology related to runes and magick, for example Odin using the runes to become powerful and giving them as gifts to humans so they can become like him, or legends of Norse runemasters who used the runes to become like Gods. Runes were always considered a magickal alphabet, unlike the other ones. That you reduce them to just a "writing system" shows ignorance.
Shadowmage wrote:
I think the question they were asking was more along the lines of how the runes became magickal if they are derived from non-magickal writing systems.
Runes are from the constellations, not from an alphabet.